Exercise: Let f be defined for all x∈R, and suppose that
∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤∣x−y∣2
for all x,y∈R. Prove that f′(x)=0 for all x∈R. Prove that f′(x)=0 for all x∈R. Hence f is a constant function.
Proof. Whenever x=y, ∣f(x)−f(y)∣/∣x−y∣≤∣x−y∣. So limy→x∣f(x)−y(y)∣/∣x−y∣=0, which implies that f′(x)=0 for all x∈R.
Exercise: Assume f:(a,b)→R is injective, and let g denote its left inverse function. That is, for all x∈(a,b), g(f(x))=x.
Further, assume that
f is differentiable at a point x∈(a,b) with f′(x)=0. Prove that if g is continuous at the point f(x), then g is differentiable at f(x), and g′(f(x))=1/f′(x). Hint: Use Theorem 4.2.
f is continuous on a,b and differentiable at a point x∈(a,b) with f′(x)=0. Prove that g is differentiable at the point f(x), and that g′(f(x))=1/f′(x). Hint: Use Theorem 4.2. Also you may use, without proof, the fact that g is continuous at f(x).
Proof. Let Y be the range of f. Pick any sequence in Y, say {yn}, whose limit is y=f(x).
We want to show that limn→∞yn−yg(yn)−g(y) exists, and it’s equal to 1/f′(x).
As yn∈Y and f is injective, let xn be the unique number in (a,b) such that f(xn)=yn, hence xn=g(f(xn))=g(yn).
As g is continuouss at y, limn→∞xn=g(limn→∞yn)=g(y)=g(f(x))=x. Thus yn−yg(yn)−g(y)=f(xn)−f(x)xn−x, whence g′(f(x)) exists as f′(x)=0, and it’s equal to 1/f′(x).
Exercise: Let h be the real-valued function defined by
h(x)={f(x)g(x)if a≤x≤bif b≤x≤c
where f:[a,b]→R and g:[b,c]→R are differentiable and f(b)=g(b). Prove that h is differentiable on [a,c] if and only if f′(b)=g′(b).
Proof. (Sketch) Easy to see that h is differentiable on [a,c] if and only if h is differentiable at b, which is equivalent to say f′(b)=g′(b) by the definition of differentiability.