Exercise: Suppose f:R→R is continuous on R, and differentiable in R\{a}. Suppose further that limx→af′(x) exists. Prove that f is differentiable at a, and f′(a)=limx→af′(x).
Proof. Let {an} be a sequence of real numbers approaching a, but none of them are equal to a. We want to show that under the given assumption the sequence an−af(an)−f(a) has a limit. By the mean value theorem, for each an, there is a bn sitting between a and an such that an−af(an)−f(a)=f′(bn). As bn is also converging to a and f′(x) is continuous at a. So the limit exists and it’s equal to limx→af′(x).
Exercise: Suppose for some integer n≥2 that the derivatives f′,…,f(n) exist and are continuous on an open interval I containing x0 and that f′(x0)=…=f(n−1)(x0)=0, but f(n)=0. Use Taylor’s Theorem to prove:
- If n is even and f(n)(x0)<0 then f has a local maximum at x0.
- If n is even and f(n)(x0)>0 then f has a local minimum at x0.
- If n is odd then f has neither a local maximum nor a local minimum at x0.
Proof. By the assumptions, f(x)=f(x0)+(an+h(x))(x−x0)n where an=n!f(n)(x0) and limx→x0h(x)=0.
- If an>0, as limx→x0h(x)=0, there is a neighborhood of x0, denoted as I0, such that an+h(x)<0 for every x∈I0. Since n is even, f(x)−f(x0)=(an+h(x))(x−x0)n≤0 for every x∈I0. And the equality holds if and only if x=x0. So f achieves a local miximum at x0.
- The same reasoning as above but with all the inequalities reversed.
- Suppose an>0. The same argument tells us that for every x∈I0, f(x)−f(x0)=(an+h(x))(x−x0)n has the same sign as x−x0 if n is odd. Thus f has no local extremal at x0. Suppose an<0, one can argue f(x)−f(x0)=(an+h(x))(x−x0)n has the opposite sign of x−x0. Thus the same.
Exercise:
- Suppose f(x)=c for all x∈[0,1]. Prove that f is Riemann integrable and ∫01f(x)dx=c.
- Suppose f(x)=x for all x∈[0,1]. Prove that f is Riemann integrable and ∫01f(x)dx=21.
- Suppose f:[0,1]→R, f(x)=0 for all x∈[0,1] except that f(x)=1 for x=21. Prove that f is Riemann integrable and ∫01f(x)dx=0.
Proof.
- Whichever partition you choose, the Riemann sum is always c. So the integral is c.
- Let a partition P be 0=x0<x1<…<xn=1) with all gaps less than δ. The the lower Riemann sum is x0(x1−x0)+x1(x2−x1)+…+xn−1(xn−xn−1), while the upper one is x1(x1−x0)+x2(x2−x1)+…+xn(xn−xn−1). The difference between the two sums is (x1−x0)2+(x2−x1)2+…+(xn−xn−1)2, which is less than δ((x1−x0)+(x2−x1)+…+(xn−xn−1))=δ. So f is Riemann integrable. To calculate to value of the integral, just look at the average of the lower sum and the upper sum, which turns out to be 1/2.
- Same argument as the previous one, but upper one is less than δ, while the lower equals .Hencetheintegralis.
Exercise: Suppose f:[0,1]→R is continuous,